????Quiz-001

This quiz will test your understanding of the “Basic Wildfire Risk Management for Land Users in Free State Grasslands” handbook.

It covers key topics such as legal obligations under the National Veld and Forest Fire Act (Act 101), risk assessment, creating fire management plans, the roles of Fire Protection Associations (FPAs) and Fire Protection Officers (FPOs), fire danger indexes, firebreak requirements, firefighting equipment and strategies, and safety on the fireline.

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1. What is the primary purpose of the National Veld & Forest Fire Act 101 of 1998 (NVFFA)? *

• To promote recreational burning
• To safeguard communities, the economy, and the environment from uncontrolled veld, forest, and mountain fires
• To establish a national fire fighting services
• To regulate the timber industry

Choose A, B, C or D

2. According to the Act 101, who is generally deemed responsible for the prevention and supression of veldfires on a given piece of land? *

• The Local Municipality
• The Fire Protection Association (FPA)
• The person responsible
• The Minister

Choose A, B, C or D

3. What percentage of land use in the Free State Province is accounted for by Agriculture? *

• 57%
• 33%
• 90&
• 1.6%

Choose A, B, C or D

4. What is one of the key legal obligations of landowners as per Act 101? *

• To provide financial support to the FPA
• To attend monthly fire management meetings
• Awareness of legal obligations
• To own fire fighting equipment

Choose A, B, C or D

5. Fire Protection Associations (FPAs) are described as community-based natural resource management organisations for what purpose? *

• To enforce environmental laws
• For the collective management of veldfires, using local knowledge within the framework provided by the Act
• To Provide weather forecasting services
• To manage water resources

Choose A, B, C or D

6. According to the Act, what must the Minister be satisfied with before registering a Fire Protection Association? *

• The applicant has significant financial resources
• The applicant is capable of performing the duties imposed on a fire protection association in terms of the ACT, and the applicant is representative of owners in the area
• The applicant has a minimum of 100 members
• The applicant owns a fire truck

Choose A, B, C or D

7. Which of the following is a statutory duty places on the FPA in respect to its area of operations? *

• To provide ambulance services
• To develop and apply a veldfire management strategy for its area
• To build public roads
• To manage local wildlife populations

Choose A, B, C or D

8. How often must an FPA supply the Minister with statistics about veldfires in its area? *

• Monthly
• Quaterly
• At least once every 12 months
• Only when requested

Choose A, B, C or D

9. What is one of the duties of the Fire Protection Officer (FPO) as set out in Section 6(1) of the Act? *

• To manage FPA’s finances
• To perform the function of the chief executive officer of the fire protection association and carry out the tasks assigned to him of her
• To conduct research on fire behaviour
• To issue burning permits without consultation

Choose A, B, C or D

10. What powers can a Fire Protection Officer NOT delegate in terms of Section 6(7)? *

• Training members
• Inspecting land
• Powers of arrest, search, and seizure
• Monitoring compliance

Choose A, B, C or D

11. What is the purpose of the Fire Danger Index (FDI) ? *

• To measure the speed of a fire
• To warn people before the time of the possible fire conditions
• To indicate the number of fires in a region
• To determine the cause of the fire

Choose A, B, C or D

12. According to the Lowveld FDI Description table, what does a "RED" category signify? *

• Low fire hazard
• Moderate fire hazard
• Extremely dangerous
• Dangerous

Choose A, B, C or D

13. What does Section 10(2) of the Act provide for when a warning of high fire dange is issued? *

• Mandatory evacuation of the area
• A prohibition on the lighting of fires in the open air in the region specified, until the period of high fire danger passes
• Increased fire fighting personnel
• Free distribution of fire fighting equipment

Choose A, B, C or D

14. Section 12. (1) places a duty on all owners whose land a veldfire may start or burn on to do what? *

• Report the fire immediately to the authorities
• Prepare and maintain a firebreak on cadastral borders with neigbors
• Have a minimum of 5 fire fighters available
• Install a sprinkler system

Choose A, B, C or D

15. What is a category 2 offence related to firebreaks for a person not a member of the FPA? *

• Failing to report a fire
• Being found in contravention of certain sections (12(2)(b), 12(4)(a) , and 12(5)) regarding firebreak preparation
• Not having fire fighting equipment
• Refusing to assist in fire fighting

Choose A, B, C or D

16. Can neighbours agree on moving a firebreak a common firebreak away from their common border? *

• No, it is prohibited by the Act
• Yes, and the FPA does not have to be involved
• Only with the written permission of the Minister
• Only if the FPA facilitates the agreement

Choose A, B, C or D

17. What must fire break construction and maintenance consider according to Section 12.(13) ? *

• The type of crops being grown
• The number of livestock on the property
• The environmental factors that influence fire behaviour in the area
• The market value of the land

Choose A, B, C or D

18. What does Section 15 provide for the Minister to grant to individuals and collectives? *

• Funding for firefighting equipment
• Exemptions from making firebreaks as per Section 12(1)
• Training in fire management
• Access to state-owned land

Choose A, B, C or D

19. Section 17. (1) requires owners to have what available fore fire fighting when there is a risk of fire? *

• A minimum of 10 trained fire fighters
• Certain equipment and suitably trained and equipped personnel
• A direct water source
• A helicopter

Choose A, B, C or D

20. According to Section 17. (7), what must an owner do if they are absent from their land in a case of a fire? *

• Notify the local police station
• Have some responsible person appointed to act on his or her behalf
• Ensure the gates are locked
• Inform the nearest fire station of their absence

Choose A, B, C or D

21. Section 18.(1) Imposes a duty on the owner for what action regarding a fire on their land that threatens life, property, or the environment? *

• To call the FPA and wait for their arrival
• For stopping the spread of a fire on his or her land
• To evacuate the property immediately
• To determine the cause of the fire

Choose A, B, C or D

22. Who may take over the fire incident command from the owner if acting in terms of the powers in Section 6? *

• Any fire fighter on the scene
• A police officer
• An Fire Protection Officer or a Forest Officer
• The Landowner’s appointed agent

Choose A, B, C or D

23. What is one of the requirements for a safety firebreak along every boundary of an agricultural holding or farm according to the Standard Fire & Emergency Services By-Law Section 6? *

• It must be paved
• It must be at least 10 metres wide
• It must be at least 5 metres wide
• It must be fenced

Choose A, B, C or D (23. What is one of the requirements for a safety firebreak along every boundary of an agricultural holding or farm according to the Standard Fire & Emergency Services By-Law Section 6?)

24. Can a person clear or maintain a safety firebreak by burning without prior written permission? *

• Yes, if they notify their neighbours
• Yes, if they have a permit from the FPA
• No, not without the prior written permission of the Chief Fire Officer
• Yes, if it is a small area

Choose A, B, C or D

25. According to the Standard Air Pollution Control & Standard District Environmental Management By-Law, under what condition may open burning of material on any land be authorized? *

• If the person needs to clear the land quickly
• Unless the prior written authorization of the Council has been obtained
• If the burning is done at night
• If only green waste is burned

Choose A, B, C or D (25. According to the Standard Air Pollution Control & Standard District Environmental Management By-Law, under what condition may open burning of material on any land be authorized?)

26. Which Act places a burden on employers to provide a safe work environment? *

• The National Veld & Forest Fire Act
• The Fire Brigade Services Act
• The Occupational Health and Safety Act
• The Disaster Management Act

Choose A, B, C or D

27. What does the Conservation of Agricultural Resources Act (CARA) regulate? *

• Building standards in rural areas
• The conservation and use of soil, vegetation and to some extent, water
• The import and export of agricultural products
• The pricing of agricultural goods

Choose A, B, C or D

28. What does the NVFFA provide for regarding the collective management of veldfire risks on a local level? *

• The establishment of government funded firefighting teams
• The formation of FPA’s with the intent to predict, prevent, manage, and extinguish wildfires using local knowledge
• The implementation of a national wildfire monitoring system
• The prohibition of all open fires

Choose A, B, C or D

29. Who is the preferred Fire Protection Officer who has operational oversight over the FPA? *

• The Minister
• The CFO
• The FPA Manager
• The FMA Coordinator

Choose A, B, C or D

30. What is the smallest geographical area where Community Base Wildfire Mangement can take place and is managed by a Sector Leader? *

• The Fire Management Area (FMA)
• Fire Protection Association (FPA)
• The FPA Sector
• Wildland Urban Interface (WUI)

Choose A, B, C or D

31. What is a core constitutional objective of local municipalities regarding fire services? *

• To provide financial assistance to landowners for fire fighting equipment
• To provide a safe and healthy environment to the local community and provision of a fire fighting service
• To regulate controlled burning operations
• To train landowners in fire fighting techniques

Choose A, B, C or D

32. What is the task of the Disaster Management Centre? *

• To fight fires on a national level
• To coordinate actions and thus has a support and not a line function
• To provide financial aid to disaster victims
• To conduct research on disaster prevention

Choose A, B, C or D

33. What is the Working on Fire Program? *

• A private fire fighting company
• An EPWP program that provides personnel and resources to prevent, manage and combat wildfires
• A training program for fire fighters
• A government agency responsible for wildfire research

Choose A, B, C or D

34. Who is responsible for managing and controlling fires on his or her land? *

• The Fire Protection Association
• The Municipal Fire Services
• The Landowner or User
• Working on Fire

Choose A, B, C or D

35. What is the "Origin" of a wildfire? *

• The widest point of the fire
• The start of the fire
• The area that has already burnen
• The direction the fire is spreading

Choose A, B, C or D

36. What are the "Flanks" of a fire? *

• The immediate front or running edge
• The heel or base of the fire
• The left and right sides of the fire, indicated as if you were facing the head
• Deep indentations of un-burnt fuel

Choose A, B, C or D

37. What is the "Perimeter" of a fire? *

• Patches of un-burnt fuels inside the fire’s edge
• The total length of the outside edge of the burnt or burning area
• Temporary control line using water
• The point where the fire is most intense

Choose A, B, C or D

38. What is the Incident Command System (ICS) designed to enable? *

• Independent actions by individual firefighters
• Effective and efficient incident management by integrating facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications
• Rapid deployment of resources without a plan
• Decentralized decision-making

Choose A, B, C or D

39. What is the only accepted system for the management of Wildfire incidents within the Free State Province? *

• The Standard Operating Procedure System
• The Emergency Response Protocol
• The Incident Command System (ICS)
• The Wildfire Management System

Choose A, B, C or D

40. According to the handbook, how many hours should you ideally not work continuously on the fireline without substantial rest? *

• 8 hours
• 10 hours
• 12 hours
• 14 hours

Choose A, B, C or D

41. What is the recommended work to rest ratio when fighting wildfires? *

• 2 hours work for every 1 hour rest
• 1 hour work for every 1 hour rest
• 1 hour rest for every 2 hours worked
• 3 hours work for every 1 hour rest

Choose A, B, C or D

42. What should you always have enough of to avoid getting dehydrated on the fireline? *

• Food rations
• First aid supplies
• Drinking water
• Communication equipment

Choose A, B, C or D

43. What is the acronym L.A.C.E.S. used for in wildland firefighting? *

• Listing Available Communication and Emergency Services
• Locating Anchor points, Control lines, Escape routes, and Safety zones
• The basics of wildland firefighting condensed into an acronym
• Learning About Controlled burning and Evacuation Strategies

Choose A, B, C or D

44. In L.A.C.E.S., what does the "L" stand for? *

• Logistics
• Lines
• Lookout
• Learning

Choose A, B, C or D

45. In L.A.C.E.S., what should firefighters be aware of according to the "A"? *

• The time of day
• The action plan, fire weather, fire behaviour, activities, and terrain
• The location of their vehicle
• The number of people on the crew

Choose A, B, C or D

46. What is the primary firefighting resource used by landowners as described in the handbook? *

• Fire trucks
• Helicopters
• The Bakkie skid unit
• Manual equipment like spades and hoes

Choose A, B, C or D

47. How much drinking water is recommended per crewmember for a standard Bakkie Unit? *

• 1 litre
• 2 litres
• 3 litres
• 600 litres

Choose A, B, C or D

48. Where should water be sprayed when fighting a grass fire? *

• Over the top of the flames
• At the base of the flame where the flame meets the fuel
• On the unburned fuel ahead of the fire
• Directly on the firefighters

Choose A, B, C or D

49. What are the two main strategies for attacking wildfires? *

• Offensive and Defensive
• Direct and Indirect
• Manual and Mechanical
• Aerial and Ground

Choose A, B, C or D

Sector Command without

50. What is a controlled burn executed as part of fire suppression tactics called? *

• Hazard reduction
• Back-burning (Burn-Out)
• Firebreak construction
• Mop-up

Choose A, B, C or D

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Once you submit your quiz, it will be reviewed by the Fire Protection Officer or an appointed Training Officer from NEFSFPA. They will mark your submission and respond to the email address you provided within 3 to 10 working days. We appreciate your dedication to wildfire risk management!